In his talk on "ha Satan" (Hebrew), Dr. Heiser argues that "the Satan" (English) is an office and title more than a name. Something surely worth considering. He applies this position to the Book of Job and states that God sent "the Satan" to observe Job because that was his job (no pun intended).
"The Satan" was questioning God's assessment of Job and this was a great sin. He had become the "Adversary." No creature has a right to question the Creator (let alone his character). So, the Lord gives "the Satan" the authority to do anything to Job short of taking his life.
Now there was a day when the sons of God came to present themselves before the Lord, and the Adversary also came among them. And the Lord said to the Adversary, “From where have you come?” Then the Adversary answered the Lord, saying, “From roaming on the earth, and from walking up and down on it.” And the Lord said to the Adversary, “Have you considered My servant Job, that there is none like him on the earth, a blameless and an upright man, who fears God, and avoids evil?” Then the Adversary answered the Lord, saying, “Has Job feared God for nothing? Have You not made a hedge around him, around his household, and around all that he has on every side? You have blessed the work of his hands, and his possessions have increased in the land. But stretch out Your hand now, and touch all that he has, and he will curse You to Your face.” The Lord said to the Adversary, “Look, all that he has is in your power; only do not stretch out your hand against his person.” So the Adversary departed from the presence of the Lord.
-Job 1:6-12
The use of "ha Satan" in the Hebrew is interesting. But if it was an office, wouldn't that office still exist? Maybe he taught that it does. Again, I'm just starting to examine his position
In another video Dr Heiser says that nowhere in the Old Testament does it connect Satan and the serpent of Genesis. He says that it's only in the New Testament. We note here, and assume Heiser would have agreed, that the Greek texts are just as inspired as the Hebrew texts.
In making his argument he seems to be arguing the Greek texts are somehow less inspired than the Hebrew texts? The Lord revealed things in his earthly ministry and revelation was given to the Apostles (especially to John and Paul) that was not fully known to or understood by to the Hebrew writers. John's vision was accurate and his account inspired. There are truths we understand about which Adam would have no concept.
Paul teaches that the fullness of Christ, while in the Law and prophets, was not fully understood. This is the Mystery of Christ Paul refers to in Romans. This is why even the Lord's chosen Apostles were confused when he said he was to go to Jerusalem to die (Matt 16:21, Luke 18:31-34) . Peter objects, the Lord calls him "Satan" (an adversary). Judas is called a "devil." The Lord suffering and dying is in the Hebrew texts (notably in Isaiah and in the Psalms), but just not fully understood.
Beyond that, Paul was given a revelation referenced in Ephesians that was not know to the sons of men before it was revealed to him. The blessings in the far above the heavens (as opposed to any earthly blessings or hope) was hidden from the prophets from "before" the overthrow and the start of the ages. Peter speaks of the restoration of the Kingdom and the earth in Acts three as a revelation "since" the ages began.
No Hebrew writer was aware of Paul's revelation.
To me, the very least of all saints, this grace was given, to preach to the Gentiles the incomprehensible riches of Christ, 9 and to reveal for all people what is the fellowship of the mystery, which from the beginning of the ages has been hidden in God, who created all things through Jesus Christ, 10 so that now the manifold wisdom of God might be made known by the church to the principalities and powers in the heavenly places
-Eph 3:8-10
I have been made a servant of it according to the commission of God, which has been given to me for you, to fulfill [complete] the word of God, 26 even the mystery which has been hidden from past ages and generations, but now is revealed to His saints. 27 To them God would make known what is the glorious riches of this mystery among the nations. It is Christ in you, the hope of glory,
-Col 1:25-27
Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, who has blessed us with every spiritual blessing in the heavenly places in Christ, 4 just as He chose us in Him before the foundation of the ages, to be holy and blameless before Him in love
-Eph 1:3-4
vs
Therefore repent and be converted, that your sins may be wiped away, that times of refreshing may come from the presence of the Lord, 20 and that He may send the One who previously was preached to you, Jesus Christ, 21 whom the heavens must receive until the time of restoring what God spoke through all His holy prophets since the world [ages] began. 22 For Moses indeed said to the fathers, ‘The Lord your God will raise up for you a prophet like me from your brothers. You shall hear whatever He may say to you. 23 And it shall be that every soul who will not hear that prophet shall be utterly eliminated from the people.’ 24 “Indeed, all the prophets since Samuel and those who follow, as many as have spoken, have likewise foretold these days.
-Acts 3:19-24
The beast, which you saw, was, and is not, and is to ascend out of the bottomless pit and go to destruction. Those who dwell on the earth whose names are not written in the Book of Life from the foundation of the world [ages] will marvel when they see the beast that was, and is not, and is to come.
-Rev 17:8
The distinction is God's plan for the earth and the restoration of the Kingdom in Israel, on earth (Acts 1:1-7, Matthew 8:11-12; Luke 22:29-30; Acts 3, etc.), and the restoration of Paradise (Rev 2:7; Rev 22:2; Rev 22:14) which was all known/revealed since the ages began through the prophets against the hope in the far above the heavens, that God has determined before the ages, which was hidden from the prophets and revealed only to Paul.
Again, Peter is called "Satan" (Matt 16:23) and Judas "a devil" (John 6:70). I believe both have life in Christ, but that's another matter for another time. For this discussion, I think (for now) "Satan" and "devil" are both descriptors and titles.
Lastly, Heiser needs to address (maybe he does in a video I haven't seen yet) the inclusion or exclusion of a Definite Article in the Greek. I don't know that "the" is in the Greek with every use of Satan as it is Hebrew. But when it comes over English, "the devil" is used many times and is specific to an adversary, not just to an office-holder. The seeking continues.
