I have covered this in previous blog posts on the use of "Yeshua" (spelling varies), but I wanted to post a short entry directed at the use of God's name in scripture. The Creator God is the great I AM. He is (Anglicized) the Yahweh and Elohim of the Hebrew scriptures (among many other names). He is the thrice holy God of scripture. He is the God of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob. His promises to Israel are yea and amen!
But he is not bound by Hebrew.
It seems from the video as though Alan thinks the entire New Testament was written in Hebrew or Aramaic? If not, I have no idea how he concludes that the Father can only be referred to as "Yahweh." Obviously, Paul uses "theós" to refer to the true God and in Acts 17 that is the same word the pagan Greeks also use (the difference being the object of the use).
It seems from the video as though Alan thinks the entire New Testament was written in Hebrew or Aramaic? If not, I have no idea how he concludes that the Father can only be referred to as "Yahweh." Obviously, Paul uses "theós" to refer to the true God and in Acts 17 that is the same word the pagan Greeks also use (the difference being the object of the use).
So Paul, standing in the midst of the Areopagus, said: “Men of Athens, I perceive that in every way you are very religious. For as I passed along and observed the objects of your worship, I found also an altar with this inscription: ‘To the unknown god (θεός).’ What therefore you worship as unknown, this I proclaim to you. The God (θεός) who made the world and everything in it, being Lord of heaven and earth, does not live in temples made by man... - Acts 17:22-24
In Psalm 82, scripture (Yahweh, the Father) refers to men as "'ĕlôhı̂ym" (אֱלֹהִים). But we know from context the object and difference. 'ĕlôhı̂ym is also used of false gods (Deut 32:17; etc.). Context, is the difference.
God (אֱלֹהִים, 'ĕlôhı̂ym) standeth in the congregation of the mighty; he judgeth among the gods (אֱלֹהִים, 'ĕlôhı̂ym)... I have said, Ye are gods (אֱלֹהִים, 'ĕlôhı̂ym); and all of you are children of the most High. But ye shall die like men...
- Ps 82:1, 6-7a
Scripture also allows for pronouns. Both the Father (Yahweh) and Satan are referred to as "he" (ekeînos); 2 Tim 2:13 cp John 8:44. In fact, Satan is referred to as a "father" in Jn 8:44. I think it's dangerous to start teaching that people are calling on Satan when they use "God."
There are people who teach "Jesus" means "Son of Zeus." It never ends. Paul never refers to Christ as "Yeshua." He uses "Iēsoûs Christos" (Greek) from which the Anglicized "Jesus" is derived. The post-Acts epistles are given to gentiles. We were never bound by Hebrew versions of the Greek.
